Hi madden1962 and welcome to FM.
As for your question - if you're talking about stock options then why should they share any bias toward call options? If a stock has a large open interest on puts, then wouldn't the market makers do the opposite of what you suggest?
I guess if you really wanted to test this you could do so easily enough yourself - just look at what the underlying tends to do right after option expiration, and see if it's statistically different from what the underlying does at any other time.
Hope that helps.